Prophetic Claim of Jesus and Muhammad

A.             Muhammad’s prophethood was not confirmed by earlier prophets.

1.               Muhammad prophecied in the Quran?Jesus promised ahmad in the Quran not Muhammad.
And remember, Jesus, the son of Mary, said: "O Children of Israel! I am the apostle of God (sent) to you, confirming the Law (which came) before me, and giving glad tidings of an Apostle to come after me, whose name shall be Ahmad". Surah 61.6
Whenever Allah has addressed Muhammad in the Qur'an, his proper name has always been clearly specified. He was never called by any other name. Certainly never by the name Ahmed. (Deshmukh, The Gospel and Islam, p. 217).
Much of this has centred on the following three traditions attributed to different Muslim sources:
Verily there was a Christian of Maris who recited the Gospel; he said that the description of the Prophet in the Gospel purported to mean that he would be in the progeny of Ismail and his name would be Ahmad . . . Aminah was commanded (by God) during her pregnancy with the Apostle of Allah, may Allah bless him, to give him the name Ahmad . . . The Apostle of Allah, may Allah bless him, said: I have been named Ahmad. (Ibn Sa'd, Kitab alTabaqat al-Kabir, Vol. 1, p. 113-114).
A well-known scholar suggests that the very nature of these traditions leads to the possibility that the prophecy in Surah 61.6 was not originally taken to be a direct prophecy to Muhammad by name:
The fact that Ibn Sa'd thinks it worth including three traditions to the effect that the Prophet's name was Ahmad is an indication that this had not always been obvious; there are no similar traditions about his name being Muhammad. (Watt, "His Name is Ahmad", The Muslim World, Vol. 43, p. 112).
It is highly questionable whether Muhammad was ever called Ahmad. The tradition that his mother was actually commanded to give him this name has a forced element about it, for traditions about annunciations of his birth and manifestations on the occasion are generally regarded as spurious and as inventions by later traditionists who sought to create a nativity narrative around Muhammad similar to those about Jesus in the New Testament. There is a very good reason to doubt whether Muhammad was ever given the name Ahmad:
As soon as one starts to inquire into the use of the name "Ahmad" in the early centuries of Islam, a striking fact emerges. Muslim children were practically never called Ahmad before about the year 125 A. H. Indeed, the point may be put even more strongly: it is impossible to prove that any Muslim child was called Ahmad after the Prophet before about the year 125. On the other hand, there are many instances prior to this date of boys called Muhammad after the Prophet; some of these had apparently received that name during the Prophet's lifetime. ... Biographical dictionaries such as the Tabaqat of Ibn Sa'd contain many Muhammads who died before 200 A. H. but hardly any Ahmads. (Watt, "His Name Shall be Ahmad", op. cit., p. 110).
This anomaly has led some writers to suggest that the name Ahmad, or indeed the whole prophecy in Surah 61.6, is a later interpolation, though this is unlikely for the reason given in the following quotation:
On the other hand some western commentators have suggested that the words 'whose name is Ahmad' (ismu-hu ahmadu) were interpolated into the Qur'an to prove that Jesus prophesied the coming of Muhammad by name. But if this were so it would be difficult to understand why the name Muhammad had not been interpolated, since it was much more obvious. (Parrinder, Jesus in the Qur'an, p. 98).
Another Christian writer, however, states that there is some reason to believe it may have been an interpolation: "This appears plausible in view of Ubayy b. Kab's different version of 61.6 and the silence of Ibn Ishaq and Ibn Hisham as to the word 'Ahmad"' (Abdul Haqq, Sharing Your Faith with a Muslim, p. 51). Instead of a prophecy to Ahmad by name Ubayy b. Kab's variant reading of Surah 61.6 makes Jesus announce a prophet who would be the seal from among the prophets and messengers of Allah (Jeffery, Materials for the History of the Text of the Qur'an, p. 170). It seems likely, however, that the word ahmadu in Surah 61.6 "could perhaps be secured by a simpler supposition, namely, that for the first century or so of Islam the word ahmadu was regarded not as a proper name but as a simple adjective" (Watt, "His Name Shall be Ahmad, The Muslim World, Vol. 43, p. 113).
It indeed appears probable that Muhammad heard, perhaps only from secondary sources, that Jesus had foretold the coming of someone else after him to complete his message and took this to be a reference to himself. Guarding against the unlikelihood that Jesus had predicted his coming by name, he chose a title as close to his name as possible to fix the prophecy on himself.
 
2.               Muhammad prophecied in the Gospel of Barnabas?
A Muslim writer significantly discounts the Gospel of Barnabas (which we shall analyse in the next section) precisely because it contains a prophecy by Jesus to Muhammad by name, "an all too obvious and tactless allusion to the Prophet by name" (Shafaet, Islam and its Prophet: A Fulfilment of Biblical Prophecies, p. 73). Muhammad himself, more wisely and discreetly, resisted the temptation.

3.               Muhammad taught that the earlier scriptures foretold of his coming.
Surah 5:157. "Those who follow the apostle, the unlettered Prophet, whom they find mentioned in their own (scriptures),- in the law and the Gospel…
However, when we go to the Bible, we actually do not find passages that prophesied about Muhammad.
a)              Other versesThe Quran also says that Jesus prophesied about Muhammad.
Surah 61:6. And remember, Jesus, the son of Mary, said: "O Children of Israel! I am the apostle of Allah (sent) to you, confirming the Law (which came) before me, and giving Glad Tidings of an Messenger to come after me, whose name shall be Ahmad."
There is only record of Jesus in the Quran prophesying about Muhammad. There is no record in the Bible of Jesus prophesying about Muhammad.
Muslims believe that the coming of Muhammad was foretold in the bible. The following verses of the Bible are frequently quoted as referring to the coming of Muhammad.

4.               General refutation
Muslims are convinced that the Jews and Christians conspired to corrupt the Scriptures. If this is true, then it would be idle for Muslims to look for any references at all to their prophet. If the bible was indeed corrupted, all references to the prophet would be removed first.

5.               Muhammad is not the “paraclete” promised by Jesus as can be seen from the verses.
a)              He will give you another Counsellor.Jesus promised his disciples that God would send the Counsellor to them (namely Peter, John and the rest of the disciples). He did not say that God will send the Counsellor to the Meccans, Medinans or Arabians. In Acts 1:4,5 Jesus commanded his disciples not to leave Jerusalem before they receive the Holy Spirit. Clearly the promise in John 14:16 was not a promise to be fulfilled by Muhammad 500 years later.
b)              Muslims refutationMuslims believe, and the Quran tells us, that Muhammad was a prophet, a "mercy", for the entire world, and Islam is a religion for all mankind, not any particular region, race, tribe or nationality.
Christian
I believe the promise of the Counsellor was specific to the disciples Jesus was speaking with. In fact we know that it is specific because in Acts 1:4,5 Jesus commanded his disciples not to leave Jerusalem before they receive the Holy Spirit. Even if Muhammad is sent to the whole world, I still think he would not fit that verse.
c)              The paraclete is of the same kind as Jesus.He will give you another Counsellor.
In this verse, the Greek word for "another" is "allos" which means "another of the same kind" as opposed to "heteros" which means "another of a different kind". Jesus was implying that the Counsellor will be one like him. Jesus is God, therefore the Counsellor is also God.
Muslims can argue here that the another of the same kind has to refer to Muhammad because both Jesus and Muhammad are humans and of the same kind. It cannot refer to Jesus because Jesus is human (even if you believe he is God, he is God in human form) and the Holy Spirit is not human.
Muslim
because you are Christian, you interpret the word "Comforter" in a Christian way and therefore find it incompatible to Prophet Muhammad.  For example, you say that "another" Comforter means "allos" (same type) not "heteros" (different type) and therefore it cannot apply to Muhammad because Jesus was God. But we Muslims believe Jesus and Muhammad were both prophets of God (neither were divine) and therefore there is no incompatibility.
Christian
I agree with you here. This point is subject to various interpretations.
d)              Does the teaching of the Holy Sprit have to be universally accepted?He will teach you all things.
Muslims argue that if the Counsellor is the Holy Spirit, then being God, his teachings should be perfect and the same everywhere. The fact that we see so many Christians sects and denominations today clearly proves the Counsellor cannot be the Holy Spirit. This argument falls apart when we apply the same test to Islam, which like Christianity, is also divided into many sects and denominations.
e)              The paraclete will be sent in Jesus’ name.John 14:26 But the Counsellor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name….
Again, the Holy Spirit is sent by the Father in the name of Jesus Christ. This too Mus­lims cannot accept. Their prophet did not come in the name of Jesus Christ.
(1)             Muslim refutationAnother objection to the Counsellor being the Holy Spirit is the fact that since the Holy Spirit had already come into the world before, the coming Counsellor promised by Jesus cannot refer to the Holy Spirit. We know for example, that Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit, that he was lead to the wilderness by the Holy spirit be tempted by the Devil, and when Jesus was baptized by John, the Holy Spirit descended upon him in the form of a dove.
When Jesus told his disciples that the Counsellor is coming, nowhere did he say that the Counsellor will be coming for the first time. On the contrary, he said, "you know him, for he lives with you" (John 14:17). From John 1:32, we can see that the Holy Spirit was in Christ Jesus and so was literally living with the disci­ples. In the past, the Holy Spirit came for a specific purpose and left. After Jesus has ascended into heaven, the Holy Spirit would no longer be with them. But Jesus promised that very soon the Holy Spirit will come again, this time to be with them forever.
f)                The paraclete will not speak of himself.Another objection to the Counsellor being the Holy Spirit is the fact that the Counsellor will not speak of himself but whatever he hear, he shall speak. Thus, Muslims contend that the Counsellor cannot be the Holy Spirit because being God, He would have to speak for himself. However this is hardly any proof that the Counsellor cannot be the Holy Spirit. Jesus, who is also God, speaks only what the Father has instructed him (John 8:28,7:16). The reason for his doing so is out of obedience, to please his Father and not out of inferiority (John 8:29). Likewise, the Holy Spirit only speaks the teachings of Jesus in order to glorify Jesus.
John 16:13-14 But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all truth. He will not speak on his own; he will speak only what he hears, and he will tell you what is yet to come. {14} He will bring glory to me by taking from what is mine and making it known to you.
g)              The paraclete will bring to remembrance all that Jesus taught.When Muslims choose to believe that the paraclete is Muhammad, they meet with many difficulties. John 14:26 tells us that the Counsellor will bring to remembrance all that Jesus taught. In other words, he is suppose to reinforce and support Jesus' teachings. We have earlier noted that Muhammad and Jesus contradicted each other in so many ways that it is hardly possi­ble for us to say that Muhammad support Christ's teachings.
h)              The paraclete is someone the disciples know. He lives with them and is in them.(John 14:17 NIV)  the Spirit of truth. The world cannot accept him, because it neither sees him nor knows him. But you know him, for he lives with you and will be in you.
Muhammad is not someone Jesus’ disciples know. He cannot be the paraclete because he is not a spirit that lives within them.
i)                Is the identity of the paraclete ambiguous?John 14:16-17 And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Counsellor to be with you forever-- {17} the Spirit of truth. The world cannot accept him, because it neither sees him nor knows him. But you know him, for he lives with you and will be in you.
This is the most familiar New Testament reference cited by Muslims to support their claim that Muhammad is being foretold by Jesus. According to them, the Counsellor promised by Jesus refers to Muhammad. The argument takes two forms.
A clear statement is made by Jesus Christ as to the identity of the Counsellor promised by him. He is the Holy Spirit.
John 14:26 But the Counsellor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you.
Look also at John 14:16,17, 15:26, 16:13.
The Muslims might accept it as a description for the angel Gabriel but hardly that of their prophet.
j)                “Pariklutos” instead of “Paracletos”?Some Muslims believe that the Greek word "paracletos" (meaning comforter, counsellor, advocate) is not the original word but the corrupted form of the Greek word "periklutos" (meaning Praised One). In other words, the text has been tempered with and Jesus was actually foretelling the coming of Muhammad, which means "praised one".
This argument is invalid because there is no evidence in favour of the assertion that the original word was "periklutos". There are thousands of New Testament manuscripts, none of which contains the word "periklutos". Therefore, the word "periklutos" is defi­nitely not in the Greek text. Furthermore the word "paracletos" does not only appear in John 14:16‑17, it appears in other verses of the bible (John 14:26, John 15:26, John 16;7 etc). It would be difficult to prove that the word "paracletos" is corrupted in all these verses while we cannot even find a single occurrence of the word "periklutos" in the bible. Thus, this argument is clearly devoid of proof.
There is also no textual evidence for this. Not one copy of the gospel of John, from the oldest copy dated to AD200 until now shows "periklutos”.
There is only one variant reading for John 14:26, in a 4th or 5th century translation into the Syriac language. It omits the adjective “Holy” but retains the noun “spirit”. The verse reads, “But the Paraclete, the Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name….”
The word “periklutos” was used by Homer when he wrote the Illiad and the Odyssey in the classical Greek of 10th Century BC. There is not one instance where this word, or any of other members of its word group, are used in the Koine Greek of the New Testament or the Greek translation of the Old Testament.
Furthermore, if we refer to John 14:16 it tells us that Jesus promised another Comforter. If as Muslims allege the original word was "periklutos" and that Christians changed it to "paracletos", then the sentence would have read "He will give you another praised one" and this statement is both out of place in its context and devoid of support elsewhere in the bible. It is unlikely that Jesus would have said "He will give you another periklutos" when he was never known by this title (the word appears nowhere in the bible). Instead, Jesus was known to the early Christians as the "paraclete" as can be seen from the following verse.
1 John 2:1 "And if anyone sins, we have an advocate (Greek paracletos) with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous."
k)              Must the paracletos be a man?The fact that Jesus always speak of the Spirit in the masculine gender in no way suggests that the Counsellor must be a man as some Muslims suggest. God himself is always spoken of in both the bible and the Quran in the masculine gender.
Some say that one cannot attribute to the Holy Spirit the faculties of “speaking” and “saying what he hears” because words in Greek these are invalid for a spirit. The two Greek words “akouo” (hear) and “laleo” (speak) can only be applied to a being with hearing and speech organs.
This is incorrect as the Bible uses that very words to refer to God hearing and speaking.
(John 9:31 NIV)  We know that God does not listen (Greek akouo) to sinners. He listens (Greek akouo) to the godly man who does his will.
Other references of God hearing can be found at John 11:41-42, 2 Cor 6:2, Luke 1:13 and Acts 10:31.
(John 9:29 NIV)  We know that God spoke to Moses, but as for this fellow, we don't even know where he comes from."
Other references of God speaking can be found at Heb 1:1, Acts 28:25.
 
6.               Muhammad is not the “paraclete” promised by Jesus as can be seen from the verses.

a)              He will give you another Counsellor.Jesus promised his disciples that God would send the Counsellor to them (namely Peter, John and the rest of the disciples). He did not say that God will send the Counsellor to the Meccans, Medinans or Arabians. In Acts 1:4,5 Jesus commanded his disciples not to leave Jerusalem before they receive the Holy Spirit. Clearly the promise in John 14:16 was not a promise to be fulfilled by Muhammad 500 years later.
b)              Muslims refutationMuslims believe, and the Quran tells us, that Muhammad was a prophet, a "mercy", for the entire world, and Islam is a religion for all mankind, not any particular region, race, tribe or nationality.
Christian
I believe the promise of the Counsellor was specific to the disciples Jesus was speaking with. In fact we know that it is specific because in Acts 1:4,5 Jesus commanded his disciples not to leave Jerusalem before they receive the Holy Spirit. Even if Muhammad is sent to the whole world, I still think he would not fit that verse.
c)              The paraclete is of the same kind as Jesus.He will give you another Counsellor.
In this verse, the Greek word for "another" is "allos" which means "another of the same kind" as opposed to "heteros" which means "another of a different kind". Jesus was implying that the Counsellor will be one like him. Jesus is God, therefore the Counsellor is also God.
Muslims can argue here that the another of the same kind has to refer to Muhammad because both Jesus and Muhammad are humans and of the same kind. It cannot refer to Jesus because Jesus is human (even if you believe he is God, he is God in human form) and the Holy Spirit is not human.
Muslim
because you are Christian, you interpret the word "Comforter" in a Christian way and therefore find it incompatible to Prophet Muhammad.  For example, you say that "another" Comforter means "allos" (same type) not "heteros" (different type) and therefore it cannot apply to Muhammad because Jesus was God. But we Muslims believe Jesus and Muhammad were both prophets of God (neither were divine) and therefore there is no incompatibility.
Christian
I agree with you here. This point is subject to various interpretations.
d)              Does the teaching of the Holy Sprit have to be universally accepted?He will teach you all things.
Muslims argue that if the Counsellor is the Holy Spirit, then being God, his teachings should be perfect and the same everywhere. The fact that we see so many Christians sects and denominations today clearly proves the Counsellor cannot be the Holy Spirit. This argument falls apart when we apply the same test to Islam, which like Christianity, is also divided into many sects and denominations.
e)              The paraclete will be sent in Jesus’ name.John 14:26 But the Counsellor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name….
Again, the Holy Spirit is sent by the Father in the name of Jesus Christ. This too Mus­lims cannot accept. Their prophet did not come in the name of Jesus Christ.
(1)             Muslim refutationAnother objection to the Counsellor being the Holy Spirit is the fact that since the Holy Spirit had already come into the world before, the coming Counsellor promised by Jesus cannot refer to the Holy Spirit. We know for example, that Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit, that he was lead to the wilderness by the Holy spirit be tempted by the Devil, and when Jesus was baptized by John, the Holy Spirit descended upon him in the form of a dove.
When Jesus told his disciples that the Counsellor is coming, nowhere did he say that the Counsellor will be coming for the first time. On the contrary, he said, "you know him, for he lives with you" (John 14:17). From John 1:32, we can see that the Holy Spirit was in Christ Jesus and so was literally living with the disci­ples. In the past, the Holy Spirit came for a specific purpose and left. After Jesus has ascended into heaven, the Holy Spirit would no longer be with them. But Jesus promised that very soon the Holy Spirit will come again, this time to be with them forever.
f)                The paraclete will not speak of himself.Another objection to the Counsellor being the Holy Spirit is the fact that the Counsellor will not speak of himself but whatever he hear, he shall speak. Thus, Muslims contend that the Counsellor cannot be the Holy Spirit because being God, He would have to speak for himself. However this is hardly any proof that the Counsellor cannot be the Holy Spirit. Jesus, who is also God, speaks only what the Father has instructed him (John 8:28,7:16). The reason for his doing so is out of obedience, to please his Father and not out of inferiority (John 8:29). Likewise, the Holy Spirit only speaks the teachings of Jesus in order to glorify Jesus.
John 16:13-14 But when he, the Spirit of truth, comes, he will guide you into all truth. He will not speak on his own; he will speak only what he hears, and he will tell you what is yet to come. {14} He will bring glory to me by taking from what is mine and making it known to you.
g)              The paraclete will bring to remembrance all that Jesus taught.When Muslims choose to believe that the paraclete is Muhammad, they meet with many difficulties. John 14:26 tells us that the Counsellor will bring to remembrance all that Jesus taught. In other words, he is suppose to reinforce and support Jesus' teachings. We have earlier noted that Muhammad and Jesus contradicted each other in so many ways that it is hardly possi­ble for us to say that Muhammad support Christ's teachings.
h)              The paraclete is someone the disciples know. He lives with them and is in them.(John 14:17 NIV)  the Spirit of truth. The world cannot accept him, because it neither sees him nor knows him. But you know him, for he lives with you and will be in you.
Muhammad is not someone Jesus’ disciples know. He cannot be the paraclete because he is not a spirit that lives within them.
i)                Is the identity of the paraclete ambiguous?John 14:16-17 And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Counsellor to be with you forever-- {17} the Spirit of truth. The world cannot accept him, because it neither sees him nor knows him. But you know him, for he lives with you and will be in you.
This is the most familiar New Testament reference cited by Muslims to support their claim that Muhammad is being foretold by Jesus. According to them, the Counsellor promised by Jesus refers to Muhammad. The argument takes two forms.
A clear statement is made by Jesus Christ as to the identity of the Counsellor promised by him. He is the Holy Spirit.
John 14:26 But the Counsellor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you.
Look also at John 14:16,17, 15:26, 16:13.
The Muslims might accept it as a description for the angel Gabriel but hardly that of their prophet.
j)                “Pariklutos” instead of “Paracletos”?Some Muslims believe that the Greek word "paracletos" (meaning comforter, counsellor, advocate) is not the original word but the corrupted form of the Greek word "periklutos" (meaning Praised One). In other words, the text has been tempered with and Jesus was actually foretelling the coming of Muhammad, which means "praised one".
This argument is invalid because there is no evidence in favour of the assertion that the original word was "periklutos". There are thousands of New Testament manuscripts, none of which contains the word "periklutos". Therefore, the word "periklutos" is defi­nitely not in the Greek text. Furthermore the word "paracletos" does not only appear in John 14:16‑17, it appears in other verses of the bible (John 14:26, John 15:26, John 16;7 etc). It would be difficult to prove that the word "paracletos" is corrupted in all these verses while we cannot even find a single occurrence of the word "periklutos" in the bible. Thus, this argument is clearly devoid of proof.
There is also no textual evidence for this. Not one copy of the gospel of John, from the oldest copy dated to AD200 until now shows "periklutos”.
There is only one variant reading for John 14:26, in a 4th or 5th century translation into the Syriac language. It omits the adjective “Holy” but retains the noun “spirit”. The verse reads, “But the Paraclete, the Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name….”
The word “periklutos” was used by Homer when he wrote the Illiad and the Odyssey in the classical Greek of 10th Century BC. There is not one instance where this word, or any of other members of its word group, are used in the Koine Greek of the New Testament or the Greek translation of the Old Testament.
Furthermore, if we refer to John 14:16 it tells us that Jesus promised another Comforter. If as Muslims allege the original word was "periklutos" and that Christians changed it to "paracletos", then the sentence would have read "He will give you another praised one" and this statement is both out of place in its context and devoid of support elsewhere in the bible. It is unlikely that Jesus would have said "He will give you another periklutos" when he was never known by this title (the word appears nowhere in the bible). Instead, Jesus was known to the early Christians as the "paraclete" as can be seen from the following verse.
1 John 2:1 "And if anyone sins, we have an advocate (Greek paracletos) with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous."
k)              Must the paracletos be a man?The fact that Jesus always speak of the Spirit in the masculine gender in no way suggests that the Counsellor must be a man as some Muslims suggest. God himself is always spoken of in both the bible and the Quran in the masculine gender.
Some say that one cannot attribute to the Holy Spirit the faculties of “speaking” and “saying what he hears” because words in Greek these are invalid for a spirit. The two Greek words “akouo” (hear) and “laleo” (speak) can only be applied to a being with hearing and speech organs.
This is incorrect as the Bible uses that very words to refer to God hearing and speaking.
(John 9:31 NIV)  We know that God does not listen (Greek akouo) to sinners. He listens (Greek akouo) to the godly man who does his will.
Other references of God hearing can be found at John 11:41-42, 2 Cor 6:2, Luke 1:13 and Acts 10:31.
(John 9:29 NIV)  We know that God spoke to Moses, but as for this fellow, we don't even know where he comes from."
Other references of God speaking can be found at Heb 1:1, Acts 28:25.
 
7.               The one through whom the whole world will be blessed.
(Genesis 18:17-18)  Then the LORD said, "Shall I hide from Abraham what I am about to do? {18} Abraham will surely become a great and powerful nation, and all nations on earth will be blessed through him.
a)              Who should inherit the birthright of Abraham?The son who should inherit the birthright of Abraham is plainly stated in those passages.
(Genesis 17:17-21)  Abraham fell facedown; he laughed and said to himself, "Will a son be born to a man a hundred years old? Will Sarah bear a child at the age of ninety?" {18} And Abraham said to God, "If only Ishmael might live under your blessing!" {19} Then God said, "Yes, but your wife Sarah will bear you a son, and you will call him Isaac. I will establish my covenant with him as an everlasting covenant for his descendants after him. {20} And as for Ishmael, I have heard you: I will surely bless him; I will make him fruitful and will greatly increase his numbers. He will be the father of twelve rulers, and I will make him into a great nation. {21} But my covenant I will establish with Isaac, whom Sarah will bear to you by this time next year."
The verses say that Ishmael will have the blessings of God and become a great nation but the covenant with Abraham is not with him but with Isaac. This clarification by God is stated in another incident.
(Genesis 21:9-13)  But Sarah saw that the son whom Hagar the Egyptian had borne to Abraham was mocking, {10} and she said to Abraham, "Get rid of that slave woman and her son, for that slave woman's son will never share in the inheritance with my son Isaac." {11} The matter distressed Abraham greatly because it concerned his son. {12} But God said to him, "Do not be so distressed about the boy and your maidservant. Listen to whatever Sarah tells you, because it is through Isaac that your offspring will be reckoned. {13} I will make the son of the maidservant into a nation also, because he is your offspring."
It is interesting to note that even the Quran states that the prophetic line will come from Isaac and not Ishmael.
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PICKTHAL: And We bestowed on him Isaac and Jacob, and We established the prophethood and the Scripture among his seed, and We gave him his reward in the world, and lo! in the Hereafter he verily is among the righteous.
SHAKIR: And We granted him Ishaq and Yaqoub, and caused the prophethood and the book to remain in his seed, and We gave him his reward in this world, and in the hereafter he will most surely be among the good.
Yusuf Ali adds the word (Abraham) so that the verse can be interpreted to include Ishmael, who is a seed of Abraham. But is the word Abraham in the original Arabic text? No.
YUSUFALI: And We gave (Abraham) Isaac and Jacob, and ordained among his progeny Prophethood and Revelation, and We granted him his reward in this life; and he was in the Hereafter (of the company) of the Righteous.
But, according to Muslims, Ishmael is the legitimate son of Abraham, his first-born, and therefore his claim to birthright is quite just and legal.
(Deuteronomy 21:15-17)  If a man has two wives, and he loves one but not the other, and both bear him sons but the firstborn is the son of the wife he does not love, {16} when he wills his property to his sons, he must not give the rights of the firstborn to the son of the wife he loves in preference to his actual firstborn, the son of the wife he does not love. {17} He must acknowledge the son of his unloved wife as the firstborn by giving him a double share of all he has. That son is the first sign of his father's strength. The right of the firstborn belongs to him.
Here God forbids the father from making the younger son the possessor of the birthright just because his mother was especially loved. In other words, the fact that the son was born first was more important than whether or not his mother was loved more.
There are other cases when for more imporant reasons the birthright is diverted to a younger son as in the case of  Joseph’s children as they were blessed by Jacob (Gen 48:13-20) because prophetically he knew that God will make the younger greater than the elder.
The case of Ishmael and Isaac is the not the case when Abraham chose to pass the covenant to  same. God wills that the covenant will go through Isaac’s line and states that specifically to Abraham. This is not the case of Abraham wanting to give the covenant to a son by Sarah because he loves Sarah more, which would be prohibited. In fact Abraham at first thinks that he would give the covenant to Ishmael and God had to correct him that the covenant will be with Isaac. 
Another thing we must bear in mind that it is referring only to physical inheri­tance. It is true therefore that Ishmael should receive a double portion of Abraham's physical inheritance. God promised to bless Ishmael but saw it fit to give Abraham's spiritual inheritance to Isaac. Likewise, we read it in 1 Samuel 16:2‑22 that God instructed Samuel to specially anoint David, who is the youngest son of Jesse. Thus we see that the physical inheritance has noth­ing to do with who God chooses to anoint.
b)              When was the covenant made?According to Muslims, the covenant has to be through Ishmael because it was made between God and Abraham before Isaac was born.
However, it does not mean that the covenant cannot be fulfilled through Isaac simply because Isaac was not born yet.  In God’s first covenant with Abraham, He told him that his descendants would be like the stars in the skies. This covenant was fulfilled through all of Abraham’s sons, and none of them are born yet.
c)               The condition of circumcision.The covenant fulfilled with the descendants that still practice circumcision.
And I will establish my covenant between me and you and your descendants after you in the generations, for an everlasting covenant, to be God to you and your descendants after you. This is my covenant which you shall keep. Every male child among you shall be circumcised. (Genesis 17:7,10)
Muslims claim that this blessing, which had been promised to Abraham was fulfilled through Ishmael's descendants and not Isaac's and therefore Muhammad was the promised prophet and not Jesus. This is because Muslims are still practising circumcision, which is the sign of the everlasting covenant to be kept by Abraham and his descendants but Christians have given up this practice after Jesus' death.
Firstly, we have to understand that circumcision is a sign (Gene­sis 17;11). A sign has no meaning by itself. What has the cutting of the male foreskin have to do with anything? But what it symbol­izes is important. At the end of the wanderings in the wilder­ness, Moses summoned his fellow Jews to circumcise their hearts ie to bring their wilfulness against God to an end.
Deuteronomy 10:16 Circumcise your hearts, therefore, and do not be stiff-necked any longer.
Later God promised His people that He will circumcise their hearts and the hearts of their descendants to love God with all their heart and with all their soul so that they might live.
Deuteronomy 30:6 The LORD your God will circumcise your hearts and the hearts of your descendants, so that you may love him with all your heart and with all your soul, and live.
Thus the act of circumcision, which literally means "cutting off", symbol­izes the "cutting off" of sin from our life. Clearly, a person who was circumcised physically was expected to respond sincerely to the spiritual significance of the act i.e. to be circumcised in the heart by "cutting off" sins from his life. The physical act alone guarantees nothing. In fact God punishes all those who were merely circumcised in the flesh but not in the heart ‑‑ which is the true significance of circumcision.
Jeremiah 9:25-26 "The days are coming," declares the LORD, "when I will punish all who are circumcised only in the flesh-- {26} Egypt, Judah, Edom, Ammon, Moab and all who live in the desert in distant places. For all these nations are really uncircumcised, and even the whole house of Israel is uncircumcised in heart."
Nevertheless, the circumcision in the flesh, though not as important as the circumcision of the heart, was a compulsory act in the Old Testament times. (Genesis 17:14) Why then is this practice not followed by Christians today? Because when Christ came, there was no longer any need for ceremonial regulations.
Luke 16:16-17 "The Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John. Since that time, the good news of the kingdom of God is being preached, and everyone is forcing his way into it. {17} It is easier for heaven and earth to disappear than for the least stroke of a pen to drop out of the Law.
Jesus said the Law and the Prophets were proclaimed until John the Baptist. Since that time the good news of the kingdom of God is being preached instead. However the good news is not that the laws were abolished because Jesus said in verse 17 that the law will never pass away. But the law became irrelevant because Jesus fulfilled them.
Matthew 5:17 "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfil them.
For example, the offering of a lamb for the atonement of sin was a compulsory act in the Old Testament (Leviticus 4:32‑35, 5:5‑6) but it was no longer relevant because Jesus came to earth to become the Lamb of God to take away the sins of the world (John 1:29,36). Likewise for the other ceremonial regulations like circum­cision. They were only relevant until John. Nevertheless Jesus had to be circumcised because he fulfilled the law ‑‑ the same way he became the Lamb of God‑‑ so that we no longer need to sacrifice a lamb in order to atone for our sins. This doctrine is clear because not once did Jesus stress ceremonial regulations like circumcision and lamb offering in order to be saved. Instead he stressed that we must believe in him (John 3:16).
Therefore, the act of circumcision is irrelevant in determining who the blessings to Abraham are meant for. Instead we can rely on clear indications as to who God intended the covenant to be for. These are found in the few verses following the promise itself. After God had spoken of the blessings for Abraham, he thought that they were for Ishmael. But God told him that they were for Isaac, not Ishmael.
d)              Can the term “seed” apply to Jesus?The word translated "descendants" literally means "seed" (in the singular). The Greek of this word is "sperma" from which we derive the word "sperm". Thus, according to the Muslims, the seed cannot refer to Jesus because he had no male parent but was conceived by the Holy Spirit.
However, it is not true that we must read the word "sperm" into the word "seed". The word "seed" simply means "descendants" and no more. In John 7:42, Jesus "comes from the seed of David" and in Romans 1:3 Jesus was "born of seed of David". Surely, the writer of these two verses had no inten­tion of incorporating the idea of "sperm" into the word "seed" because that will make the two verses incorrect.

8.               servant mentioned in Isaiah 42:1
Jesus is the servant chosen by God (Isaiah 42:1-4 and Matthew 12:17-21),
 
9.               stone cut out without hands mentioned in Daniel 2:34
He is the stone cut out without human hands (I Peter 2:6-8
 
10.           "AND THE AHMED OF ALL NATIONS WILL COME." - HAGGAI, ii.7

11.           THE MYSTERY OF THE "MISPA"

12.           PROPHET MUHAMMAD IS THE "SHILOH"

13.           PROPHET MUHAMMAD AND THE EMPEROR CONSTANTINE

14.           PROPHET MUHAMMAD IS THE SON-OF-MAN

15.           BY THE APOCALYPTICAL "SON OF MAN," PROPHET MUHAMMAD IS INTENDED. THE SON OF MAN ACCORDING TO THE JEWISH APOCALYPSES.

16.           KING DAVID CALLS HIM: "MY LORD"

17.           THE LORD AND THE PROPHET OF THE COVENANT

18.           ISLAM AND AHMADIYAT ANNOUNCED BY ANGELS "EUDOKIA" MEANS "AHMADIYEH" [LUKE ii. 14]

19.           JOHN THE BAPTIST ANNOUNCES A POWERFUL PROPHET.
THE PROPHET FORETOLD BY THE BAPTIST WAS CERTAINLY PROPHET MUHAMMAD. JOHN THE BAPTIST FORETOLD PROPHET MUHAMMAD THE BAPTISM OF JOHN AND JESUS ONLY A TYPE OF RELIGIOUS MARKING "SIBGHATULLAH". THE “SIBGHATULLAH," OR THE BAPTISM WITH THE HOLY SPIRIT AND WITH FIRE

20.           THE PROPHET OF ARABIA AS SPOKEN OF IN THE BIBLE "THE BURDEN UPON ARABIA" - ISAIAH xxi. 13.

21.           Is Muhammad the Holy One from Mount Paran?
Habakkuk 3:3 God came from Teman, the Holy One from Mount Paran. Selah His glory covered the heavens and his praise filled the earth.
According to Muslims, the words "the Holy One from Mount Paran" speaks of the coming of Muhammad since Ishmaelites are from Paran (Genesis 21:21).
Refutation
This argument is invalid for 3 reasons. Firstly, this verse should not be interpreted literally. If the Holy One literally came from Paran, then God literally came from Teman. And we know that this cannot be true. God is eternally existent; He did not come from anywhere. Rather this verse simply speaks of the "coming" of God in the sense of His manifestation of divine power and glory to men. Specifically, it talks about the times when the Israelites witnessed the giving of the ten commandments which was accompanied by God's magnificent manifestation. Teman and Paran are the regions to the south of Palestine, in the general area where God manifested Himself to Israel. This is clear from this parallel text.
Deuteronomy 33:2 He said: "The LORD came from Sinai and dawned over them from Seir; he shone forth from Mount Paran. He came with myriads of holy ones from the south, from his mountain slopes.
Secondly, the term "Holy One" is a term used only for God.
Isaiah 30:15 This is what the Sovereign LORD, the Holy One of Israel, says: "In repentance and rest is your salvation, in quietness and trust is your strength, but you would have none of it.
Psalms 71:22 I will praise you with the harp for your faithfulness, O my God; I will sing praise to you with the lyre, O Holy One of Israel.
Thirdly, it is evident from the description that the verse that the verse is not referring to Muhammad. We read "his glory covered the heavens; and the earth was full of his praise" (Habakkuk 3:3) Does that sound like a description of the prophet Muhammad?

22.           Is Muhammad the rider of the camel?
Isaiah 21:7 When he sees chariots with teams of horses, riders on donkeys or riders on camels, let him be alert, fully alert."
Muslims claim that the Hebrew Version of the text, which is the most authentic, has rendered the verse as "He saw two riders; one of them was a rider upon an ass and the other a rider upon a camel..." According to Muslims, this is a vision concerning Jesus' entry into Jerusalem, riding on an ass and Muhammad's entry into Medan, riding on a camel.
Refutation
Firstly, the original text says "riders" and "horsemen" in the plural. I do not know where the Muslim author got the singular translation. Perhaps we should examine his source. As the verse talks not about two riders but two groups of riders: one group on donkeys and the other group on camels, there is no way the verse can be referring to Jesus and Muhammad.
Secondly, if we read the verse in context, we can see that this verse is not talking about either Jesus or Muhammad. The first 39 chapters of Isaiah are words of judgment against the different nations. Isaiah 21:1‑10 deals with judgment against Babylon (as seen from verse 7), vs 11‑12 concerns Edom, vs 13‑18 concerns Arabia etc.
In Isaiah 21:1‑10, Isaiah was given a vision from God about the fall of Babylon. Many scholars believe this prophesy referred to Babylon's fall in 539 BC when it was attacked by the Persians and Medes. Babylon was found in festival gaiety when the "riders on donkeys" and "riders on camels" attacked . The "riders on donkeys" symbol­izes the Persians while the "riders on camels" symbolizes the Medes because these animals were greatly in use in the respective nations. The two group of riders together signifies the two nations com­bined against Babylon. This verse is not referring to either Jesus or Muhammad.

23.           Jesus cannot be the promised prophet because the Jews believed that the Christ and the prophet are two different persons as can be seen from the way they questioned John the Baptist.John 1:25 questioned him, "Why then do you baptize if you are not the Christ, nor Elijah, nor the Prophet?"
Refutation
This does not prove that the Christ and the prophet are two distinct personalities. It simply prove that the Jews thought the prophet and the Christ are two different persons. The difference is important because what the Jews believed and what is true are two different things.
In John 10:33 the Jews sought to kill Jesus because they believed that he blasphemed by claiming to be God. Although Christians believe that Jesus did claim to be God, Muslims would like to believe that Jesus did not claim to be God but the Jews misunderstood Jesus to be claiming that he is God. Thus the Muslim should not be surprised with the argument that what the Jews believed could be wrong.

B.              Jesus was prophecied of in the Old Testament in great detail
1.               Jesus told us that his coming was prophesied in the Old Testament(John 5:46 NIV)  If you believed Moses, you would believe me, for he wrote about me.
(Luke 24:44 NIV)  He said to them, "This is what I told you while I was still with you: Everything must be fulfilled that is written about me in the Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms."
2.               Many evidence that the Old Testament did foretell about Jesus’ comingThere are many verses in the Old Testament that foretell the coming of Jesus. His virgin birth was predicted in Isaiah 7:14. His birthplace in Bethlehem was given in Micah 5:2. Zechariah 9:9-10 describes his public entry into Jerusalem on an ass. His betrayal is described, including even the price of thirty pieces of silver, in Zechariah 11:12-13. The details of his crucifixion are portrayed in detail in Psalm 22, written by David at a time when offenders are killed by stoning and crucifixion was unheared of. The purpose of His death, and details of His trial, suffering on the cross are foretold in Isaiah 53. All in all, there are more than three hundred prophecies in the Old Testament which were fulfilled by Jesus during His first coming.
Further reference
3.               It is not true that Jesus’ prophethood is only for the Jews while Muhammad’s is for all mankind.Surah 19.21 He said: "So (it will be): Thy Lord saith, 'that is easy for Me: and (We wish) to appoint him as a Sign unto men and a Mercy from Us':It is a matter (so) decreed."
According to the Bible, Jesus was also sent to mankind.
Matt 19.20
 
Notes
Other Muslims realizing the weakness of this argument, admit that the original word is "paracletos" and then claim that Muhammad was the "paracletos" that Jesus was referring to. However an examination of John 14:16‑17 rules out this possibility.
We have said earlier that Muhammad cannot be the paracletos because the verses state clearly that the Holy Spirit is the paracletos. Yet for those who wish to explore further, there are many other clues within the verses itself to tell us that Muhammad cannot be the paracletos.
 
Other Muslims realizing the weakness of this argument, admit that the original word is "paracletos" and then claim that Muhammad was the "paracletos" that Jesus was referring to. However an examination of John 14:16‑17 rules out this possibility.
We have said earlier that Muhammad cannot be the paracletos because the verses state clearly that the Holy Spirit is the paracletos. Yet for those who wish to explore further, there are many other clues within the verses itself to tell us that Muhammad cannot be the paracletos.